Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 15:16
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Mia Goth Joins Shawn Levy’s ‘Star Wars: Starfighter’ Alongside Ryan Gosling - Variety
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Why would a girl not want you to know she has a crush on you?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?